<< just the same as Stalin used up the Jewish partisans in Warsaw; >>
Say what? Is this reference confusing the Jewish ghetto uprising in April and May of 1943, when Hitler's forces were still on the offensive deep inside Russia, with the Polish Home Army uprising of August 1944?
It is true that the Red Army had reached the Vistula by the time the anticommunist Home Army uprising occurred, but today, even some Polish nationalist historians dispute the old saw that Stalin could easily have liberated Warsaw.
However, what actually led Stalin to label the Home Army partisans as criminals was the Red Army's interception of their order from London to harass the Red Army with attacks from the rear once it advanced into Polish territory. That was the explicit reason Stalin gave for revoking the permission originally given to Churchill to supply the Warsaw fighters with relief flights based in Russia. Under Sikorski, Home Army partisans operated in an uneasy united front with the Red Army; after his death, his successors engaged in anticommunist adventures that wrecked that alliance.
"Polish territory," to the Home Army, was the territory West of the Curzon line, ceded to the Soviet Union at Versailles, then wrested from the USSR by Piludski's conquest, ratified by the Riga treaty, retaken by the USSR in the Molotov-Ribbentrop partition, and still today incorporated into the Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine, except for relatively minor border adjustments that restored the Bialystok district to Poland.
Ironically, many Jews have leveled against the Home Army the similar charge of insufficient military support (in the form of smuggled arms) to the Warsaw ghetto fighters in 1943.
Ken Lawrence