The point was this - inequality has increased over the last decade or two solely due to immigration. This was based on a recent study by some academic economist (unfortunately I don't remember the name), who claims that if you remove recent immigrants and analyze the rest of the population, inequality has increased only slightly (they also claim that the immigrants are doing better too, but not only did they not give any evidence for this claim its beside the point), and that even the poor have gained economically.
My question is - do they have a point? Or is this study the equivalent of the Bell Curve, junk numbers and analysis to "prove" and idoeological axiom?
Brett