culture & poverty/ culture $ wealth

Wojtek Sokolowski sokol at jhu.edu
Thu Jul 15 12:48:26 PDT 1999


At 01:05 PM 7/15/99 -0400, you wrote:
>
>Charles: Not that I am against moralizing, but that is usually a way of
contrasting with a historical materialist explanation, and what I give is a historical materialist explanation. Historical materalists recognize that ruling class rule is always dependent upon the ruling class being more class conscious than the masses it rules. You seem to miss that my explanation is classically materialist (i.e. Marxist) and not moralist. Its coicidence with morality does not eradicate it historical materialism.

Charles, I do not think my argument was directed against your specific position. It was more against the multi-culti approach that fetishizes culture, especially the popular variety.

Of course the bottom line of my argument was that we need to focus exclusively on social institutions (culture being one of them) to explain social inequality, because otherwise the only other option would be biological determinism.


>From that perspective, the "culture of poverty" argument appears as a step
in a right direction. The pc left does not like this argument, because as liberals and bourgeois pundits - they hold an idealistic/mentalist view in which culture is as product of individual human consciousness rather than social interaction, relations of production, etc.

Only based on that assumption, they can view the culture of poverty argument as "blaming the victim" i.e. the person whose consciousness "produced" that culture (which they equate with "tastes and beliefs"). I do not make that assumption (nor do I think you do) - to me culture is a social institution, just as law or property. Individulas do not make them, socities do - under specific historical conditons.

wojtek



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