I've seen above case construed as such, but didn't justice John Harlan (guy right-wingers now love to cite for his 'color-blind' lone dissent in Plessy) base court's decision in above case on #14?...I don't recall him mentioning #5 due process or #5 just compensation, rather he referred to Illinois state constitution...how did above decision differ from other industrial revolution era cases in which Supreme Court developed substantive due process under #14 to invalidate state economic regulations?
in *Gitlow*, the court expressed that #1 speech and press are among basic rights and liberties protected from impairment by states - even as it upheld Benjamin Gitlow's conviction for violating New York's 'criminal anarchy' law - because word *liberty* in #14's due process clause includes liberty of speech... Michael Hoover