Doug wrote:
> Or in other words, 100% less the employment/population ratio. By that
> measure, the U.S. working class is a lot better off than the Western
> European working class. Would you want to make that argument?
>
That's why I wrote that "changes in unemployment" can be measured this way. Cross-country comparisons of the level of working-age non-employment are different. Besides: "non-employment" in the States is much worse than "non-employment" in Europe. On that note, why do these levels differ so much? Is it really because so many working-aged Europeans are just living on the dole?
Seth