>P.S. Marx took his basic theory of productive labor from Smith, and
>Smith was not above using the ambiguity of the phrase as part of his
>fight against priests and nobles. I don't think that figures in Marx's
>discussion. I might also add that I am not convinced that it is, in any
>case, a useful analytic category. But that is an entirely separate issue.
Since I think productive labor is a useful category, I would like to hear why you think it might not be.