Maureen Therese Anderson wrote:
> Sahlins said Ob. provides no
> theoretical principle for distinguishing when one or the other of
> disposition ever comes into play--and which (again Sahlins) becomes de
> facto bourgeois "common sense."
Is "common sense" Sahlins's term here. I'd be interested in hearing more -- in part because just recently I have decided that I myself wish to eliminate "ideology" from my vocabulary and replace it with the term "common sense" -- on the assumption that common sense (under any definition more or less) is always either trivial or viciously wrong. "Ideology" carries so many different meanigns -- all uncontestable unless one wishes to fight the language, which I don't -- that it has pretty much become useless without elaborate ad hoc explanations.
Carrol