>>There is _no symmetry_ between women and men. That men do not have access
>>to women's knowledge most emphatically does not mean that its
>>opposite--women do not have access to men's understanding of themselves--is
>>true. (This is a Hegelian insight of the master-slave relationship.)
>
>What evidence do you have to support this, aside from "Hegelian
>insight"?
One oft-remarked bit of circumstantial evidence is how convincingly women authors portray male chars, compared to male authors portraying female chars.
=margaret