On Tue, 4 May 1999, Doug Henwood wrote:
> >But why are guns so available? Isn't this like the question of why some
> >formerly socialist countries were able to "reform" more than others?
>
> I think there's a deceptive getting-to-the-bottom feeling about the
> explanation that those transitions countries succeeded best that reformed
> most that's a bit like the explanation of U.S. murder rates by the
> availability of guns. You also have to explain the reasons behind varying
> degrees of transition reform & the ubiquity of guns in the U.S. Why do
> Americans love guns so much, and why are the laws so lax?
I don't think the analogy holds, Doug. I think we can explain the US's comparatively much laxer gun laws, like other facets of our constitution, in terms of accidents and conjuntures of 18th century history that hardened over time. And then the higher murder rate today is an independent variable: when people get pissed, or engage in criminal acts, they have an easier and more effect means of killing ready to hand than people in other countries, who get pissed off and engage in crimes just as often, but on a more poorly armed playing field, and so with less lethal effect.
In the case of reform, you're suggesting a different model: instead of A influencing B, C influences both.
Michael
__________________________________________________________________________ Michael Pollak................New York City..............mpollak at panix.com