It is unnecessary to deny the accumulation of knowledge in order to argue that the existence of exploitation and oppression still makes much of our knowledge production ideological. We know more about the world and its inhabitants than, say, Thomas Aquinas did, don't we? Most educated people nowadays do not subscribe to the geocentric theory. Didn't Marx give a better explanation of capitalism than Smith or Ricardo did?
>an historically-specific
>critique of an historically-specific formation
As for historical specificity, denying the accumulation of knowledge makes you ahistorical. 300 years ago, the number of the Japanese who spoke English must have been minimal (close to zero), whereas now all public school students in Japan are required to take six years of English before they graduate from high school. The creation of the world market has had its effects on knowledge production, dissemination, acquisition, etc.
BTW, do you have a rational ground to choose Gould's account of evolution instead of Dawkins's? If so, what?
Yoshie