>But if it could be shown that of the group of women experiencing
>unplanned and or unexpected pregnancy who chose not to mother, a
>substantial proportion could trace their decision to fear of something
>associated with mothering. And if that something could be manipulated by
>social engineering, reducing that fear, then society would have been
>improved. But can the "willingness to mother" variable be put forward as
>a servicable indication of a society's health.
Does "willingness to father" matter in your model? Or are women special?
Doug