Only if ever continously declining percentage of population people is enjoying 6% increase of earnings, would it be possible for a higher earnings growth rate not to outstrip the GDP if latter is growing at slower rate, no? So is the Pollak paradox only another name for the tendency towards the centralization of wealth? At any rate, profits, as conventionally measured, are fairly stable as perentage of GDP, as conventionally measured, no? But this is misleading if ever fewer people are sharing in the profits--so stability of shares may paradoxically be another expression of the tendency towards ever higher levels of proletarianization? Yours, Rakesh