>I can't remember where I picked up the following spcculation or how
>respectable the source was -- but sometime in the last 30 years I came
>across an estimate that throughout the history of class society the
>relative size of the ruling class under all conditions was about the
>same -- around 2%. Anyone have any comment? Substantiation? Refutation?
>Qualification or amendment?
Right or wrong, that sounds like something I read/heard/imagined also. Somewhere.
I'd be interested in an authoritative address, also.