>The reason why Ken & other followers of Lacan & Zizek don't want to
>renounce the recourse to the use of the word "psychotic" must be that while
>they want a word that damns their objects of criticism, they can't bring
>themselves to using such words like "bad," "wrong," "untrue," "incorrect,"
>"ideological," etc. It would be very un-postmodern to suggest that there
>are such things as the distinction between "good" and "bad," that "true" is
>preferable to "false," and so on; it's also supremely un-postmodern to
>argue explicitly that the theory one is advancing is superior to & closer
>to truth than competing theories.
Is Zizek a postmodernist? I'm taxonomically challenged, so I need some help on this.
Doug