--jks
In a message dated Wed, 9 Feb 2000 3:29:03 PM Eastern Standard Time, oudies at flash.net writes:
> Justin writes:
> >No, it's not. Not, anyway, according to longstanding Supreme Court
> precedent. Here is the latest statement:
>
>
> i forgot to excise those editorial comments that were those of a member of
> another list. i don't agree with them. however, i'm wondering about this
> issue that never gets raised in these debates: most of the english
> colonies had a bill of rights in their own constitutions prior to the CC in
> Philly. as such, if i remember correctly, these weren't about state
> militias but were about "the rights of man". one of the CC debates was,
> among other things, over the redundancy of even having a bill of rights
> when most of the colonies had already established them during the colonial
> era or had done so under the Articles of Confederation given that, at that
> time, each of the 'states' saw themselves as sovreign governments simply
> allying themselves under the articles. wondering what, if any, the
> scuttlebutt in that regard was in your circles.
>
> kelley