>so if productivity goes up because of introduction of new technology
>raising the technical composition of capital, to the extent that
>rise in technical composition is reflected in a rising of the value
>composition ( i.e. the ratio of c to v ), the rate of profit will
>fall
So why did it rise from 1982 to 1996? And why hasn't it fallen in the EU? Am I just not tweaking the numbers properly to achieve the theoretically desired result?
Doug