>
> Did Russell really solve his paradox ?
>
in my sparse parsing of the many messages in this thread, i did not see a direct response to this question, so my attempt at an answer: if you are talking about the paradox of the set of all sets that do not contain themselves, russell came up with a theory of types to avoid the issue, but as someone else (jks?) did point out all this was made moot by godel's incompleteness theorem.
--ravi