Miles Jackson wrote:
>
> Do we really need some kind of convoluted psychodynamic explanation
> for this? Isn't it reasonable to say that these are predictable
> results of socialization into a society in which people value
> individual rights and achievements?
Why has that "socialization" worked here so much better than in Europe, for example? Certainly the ruling élites there would always have liked to "socialize" the subaltern population in the same way as here.
Christopher Rhoades Dÿkema