So, OPEC can't ever act on the production side to influence price again because it's too internally divided? Is this because its huge producers (like Saudi Arabia) gain more relatively from higher production than its smaller producers (like Kuwait), who would gain relatively from keeping it in the ground in anticipation of higher future prices? Was not Iraq's interest in Kuwait an interest in pushing prices down?
You suggest that the price is determined on the spot and futures markets, but the price has got to be above the price for a good offered in a perfectly competitive market with homogenous goods--simply because there are no substitutes and there is still huge excess capacity. If OPEC still controls around 30% of world output, in those conditions, how could it not exert some pricing power?
I'm not suggesting the US-over-a-barrel scenario. But I also wonder what globalization has meant in terms of oil production and pricing. At one point--1973 and 1979--OPEC pretty much did what it would. That was an anomaly--but what in particular has changed since then?
Christian