Latin

[C. G. Estabrook]

No, it doesn't, but the term is I believe "paterfamilias" (= father of a
family), where "familias" is an archaic genitive singular. --CGE

On Tue, 12 Mar 2002, joanna bujes wrote:


> At 03:06 PM 03/12/2002 -0500, you wrote:
> >U.S. stops somewhere short of the power over his _familio_ exercised by
> >a Roman Pater Famillius (I think  I've got my declensions wrong).
> 
> It's "familia", not that it matters all that much.
> 
> Joanna
> 
>