> India's share in the world trade less than 1%.(It's
> probably 0.50% of the world trade) How does India
> contribute significantly to "the First world's"
> prosperity? How does "the First World" contributes
> significantly to India's poverty?
Since India is in the former British empire, we should expect the exploitation to be indirect. The British did not interfere that much with local business, but established control of the "vectors" (as we now say) in the sphere of circulation, transportation foremost. Thus, the question should read: What percentage of cargo from India passes through British hands before it reaches the consumer, under what conditions, esp. what part of the surplus wanders into British coffers? Does British merchant capital wield influence on production decisions? The same questions should be asked about India's national economy, of course.
Maybe this leads nowhere, but since I read recently that the Crown is not above stealing land from the rural poor in Venezuela, nothing in this regard would surprise me.
cheers AN