> Since India is in the former British empire, we should
> expect the exploitation to be indirect. The British did
> not interfere that much with local business, but
> established control of the "vectors" (as we now say) in
> the sphere of circulation, transportation foremost.
> Thus, the question should read: What percentage of cargo
> from India passes through British hands before it
> reaches the consumer, under what conditions, esp. what
> part of the surplus wanders into British coffers?
India's total exports are about 10% of the GDP. Exports to Britain are about 5% of the total exports. India's total annual trade with Britain is about 5 bn pounds.
>Does
> British merchant capital wield influence on production
> decisions? The same questions should be asked about
> India's national economy, of course.
No. Britain is irrelevant to the problem we are discussing now.
Ulhas