> oh for christ's sake. this is a waste of time. you mention queer theory.
you mention foucault. but you don't seem to have a clue what queer theory or
foucault are on about.
Actually I did not mention Foucault or queer theory. I asked about Marxism and someone commented on my post that they thought it was Foucault and not Marx who said that homosexuality identity and homophobia were the product of capitalism.
Now, I have read Foucault on my own, but will admit to only having a humble high school education in combination with a big geek streak. I am not familiar with 90% of the names you have mentioned in your other posts.
My original question regarded some Marxist commentary I read that said if capitalism was overthrown, homophobia would be ended. It made me wonder, since homophobia seems to have existed/exist in non-capitalist environments.
I also understand Miles point (though I do not know what presentism is), but I am confused. I read last week about a gay subculture in 17th Century Venice. While not the Castro or Fire Island, it does appear to be a group of men who joined together on the basis of sharing a desire for homosexual sex. I get that homosexual identity is unstable, but homosex has seemed to provide a basis for men to come together as a group or subculture in different places over time.
Also, I appreciate jks' information about Marx, his sex life and his prudery. But I do not get what you mean when you wrote: "everything has an objective standard that is also subjective."
Brian Dauth Queer Buddhist Resister