Charles Brown wrote:
>
> CB: Jazz was a form of party and popular music originally. For example,
> Malcolm X ( in his autobio) describes how Duke Ellington's band played for
> big youth dances, not sit down concerts ,in the thirties, in places like
> Lansing, Michigan. Now it is more a form of chamber music.
>
Could "classical[a] music" be defined as dance music turned chamber/concert music? My grasp of music history is perfunctory, but I believe that the traditions out of which first baroque and then "classical [b]" (=pre-beethoven) music developed were all dance traditions. And that concet music evolved from chamber music.
If so, then what Justin defines as a loss is more like the shift from Dowland to Handel????
_Different_ but neither better nor worse.
Carrol
P.S. Problem with terminology above, since "classical" has a least three separate senses, not easily disentangled. The "Jazz Classics" would not be "classical" in either sence a or sense b above, but in the popular sense of "classical," the best, the original. Someone else can try to untangle this if they care.