-----Mensagem original----- De: lbo-talk-admin at lbo-talk.org [mailto:lbo-talk-admin at lbo-talk.org]Em nome de Michael Pollak
Which made me wonder: does that make any sense to say? That your country only has 30 million poor people -- but 120 million are suffering from malnutrition? Don't the 120 million have to be considered poor under any reasonable definition? They're starving.
When they are asserted to be not poor, does that simply mean they now earn over a dollar a day in tradeable income? If, for argument's sake, the number of malnutrished Chinese has stayed the same over that period, or gotten worse, does it make sense to say there are fewer poor people in China than 25 years ago?
I was also wondering if these are UN statistics that everyone studying China uses. The second half of the article seems to suggest that they originated with the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (the FAO).
Michael
-I wonder to what extent we have any reliable poverty statistics in any -country. All of them seem to be somewaht manipulated and the very notion -of PPP seems to be quite unreliable too. I also don´t know to what -extent non monetary benefits (such free healthcare and other subsidies) -are included in the calculation of income poverty.
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