[lbo-talk] "Does the Jewishness of the neocons influence American foreign...

C. G. Estabrook galliher at alexia.lis.uiuc.edu
Fri Apr 9 21:53:51 PDT 2004


What term would you use for a state that privileged one group defined by descent and disadvantaged all others? The examples are the former South Africa and present day Israel.

And you misunderstand me about every state's (except Israel) being the state of its (present day) inhabitants. Israel, unable to generate a constitution, uses as an organic law a definition of itself as the state of the world-wide Jewish people -- explicitly not the state of its present-day inhabitants. Thus someone of the proper descent whose family left the Levant in the 1st century CE has more rights in present day Israel that someone not of the proper descent whose family has lived there continuously since that time. There's an appropriate term for that. --CGE

On Fri, 9 Apr 2004 MOTECK1457 at aol.com wrote:


> In a message dated 4/9/2004 9:01:30 PM Eastern Standard Time,
> galliher at alexia.lis.uiuc.edu writes: Israel is a uniquely racist
> state, in that all other states are the states of their inhabitants,
> but Israel is by law the state of that one racial group worldwide Once
> again, Jews are not "one racial group." Defining Jews as "one racial
> group" is defining them the way the Nazis did. Jews are multi-ethnic
> and multi-racial. Ever hear of the Jewish Multiracial Network?
> (http://www.multiracialjewishnet.org/). Take a close look at the
> illustrations on that website. You also need to read anthropologist
> Raphael Patai's The Myth of the Jewish Race...
>



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