>I'm not enough of a political economist to know if it makes a difference
>if that oil market is completely privatized, where there's competition
>within a nation-state or if it was enough to simply the nation state
>producing oil on the world market for that market discipline to work most
>"effectively" from the worldview of those who think it's effective. If
>that question even makes sense.
i am the world worst editor of my own work! This is actually what happens when I bother to proofread what I write. Fat Finger Fannie! I give up! I refuse to even try to proofread on the screen any more. NO! I'm not going to print my e-mail. Plus, I proofread my own work all day for my job!
Anywho, my question is: Is the nature of market discipline different if there's also an internal market of competing oil interests within a nation-state and those oil interests compete with all other oil interests on the market? Or is it simply enough that a nation's oil is subject to the discipline of the world market?
It seems to me that it might have to do with capitalist's love of predicatability. I'm thiking here of arguments as to why what some call managerial capitalism came to prominence: the desire to ensure more predictability in order to make business decisions.
But, then again, IANAE!
Sorry for the overpost, but that questions was so bungled that I felt I had to correct it if I was ever going to get any productive replies!
Kelley