Gregoire Seither said:
> My ISP has pointed me to a tiny paragraph
> in their general conditions saying that I am
> not allowed to use the free web space they
> provide for political or religious proselytism...
> (there is no First Amendment in France) -
> therefore my website is shut down . . . .
Granting arguendo whatever may be all the "shoulds" one might advance favoring the desirability of unfettered/uncensored speech, query (hardly just for non-U.S. citizens!) the correctness (more precisely: probable INcorrectness) of the apparent implication in the parentheses above, i.e., that if a U.S.-based ISP and its subscriber agreed to a comparable limitation in their user agreement, the First Amendment would bar its enforceability in the U.S.?
^^^^^^^
CB: Correct. First Amendment protection only applies to state action, not private.