>
if "nonviolent struggle played an important role during indian independence struggle" then was it not "useful in overthrowing a colonial regime"? of course the phrase "indian experience" gives an out to refer to communal violence and such (many of which were not part of the independence struggle but occured as a regrettable side-effect). and hence the final sentence of the paragraph:
> One simply cannot
> argue that Indian independence was achieved in a nonviolent context.
but who is arguing that? nonviolent struggle may well be employed in a violent context. the question that the author correctly starts with is if it (non-violent struggle) is a useful tool. the reasoning in the rest of the piece seems to confuse the issues.
--ravi