> > Ok, so, either a comodity is equatable with it's price or there is
> > something about the commodity that exceeds the price. Problems of
> > induction and *definition* enter here.
> >
>
> At any given time under any given historical conditions human activity
> (time) is being distributed in various ways. Explaining price is of no
> value in explaining that distribution of living human activity or its
> historical roots.
>
> I still don't see why (except for professional economists -- i.e.,
> except for readers of birds' entrails) price theory is all that useful
> or important.
>
> Understanding how time gets allocated seems to me the question of human
> history.
>
> Carrol
-------------------------------
Fair enough, but price is how time [Augustine, call the Vatican] is allocated under capitalism. Now unless you want to make the prediction that time and prices as forms of collective intentionality [thought....and behavior] will, themselves, be overcome under socialism, then how do you propose to say that prices and time won't simply transform the contexts in which exploitation etc. will express themselves in roughly similar ways? That is to say, if it's not necessarily time and price that are the utlimate causes of exploitation, opression etc. then how do we talk/perform their overcomeability?
Just asking............
Ian