Sowell gives an answer to his own question right here in the above passage. Of course blacks who were not subjected to slavery fared better. Why does he not draw that conclusion? The bit that blacks absorbed "red neck" culture seems like a far reach. His only piece of "evidence" to substantiate this is that black soldiers from the north scored better on mental tests than white soldiers from the South (who did this test anyway and why does he not give a reference to it?)
Thomas
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