>Indeed, there is a good reason why courts have
>consistently ruled statistical evidence of that sort
>inadmissible.
>
>Please note that I am not arguing that there is no
>bias in sentencing such cases. All I am saying is
>that one must demonstrate that bias on the individual
>case basis rather by using statistical inference which
>pertains to classes rather than individuals.
So you don't think it's possible that the courts standard could be an expression of an unwillingness to face its own bias?
and, just for grins, there's more statistical evidence of that sort here;
<http://www.deathpenaltyinfo.org/article.php?scid=5&did=184>
where you can find this quote:
"In 82% of the studies [reviewed], race of the victim was found to influence the likelihood of being charged with capital murder or receiving the death penalty, i.e., those who murdered whites were found more likely to be sentenced to death than those who murdered blacks." - United States General Accounting Office, Death Penalty Sentencing, February 1990