On Thu, 24 Feb 2005 uvj at vsnl.com wrote:
> How do you demonstrate that all this is true? I am familiar with
> Freudian theories and I know their claims.
Umm--because researchers have conducted multiple studies that confirm the claim? Perhaps I didn't make myself clear: it is empirically confirmed that homophobic men are in fact more sexually aroused by men having sex than nonhomophobic men are. There you are!
> The question is how psychologists are able to do it rigorously? What
> does rigour mean in this case?
Conducting studies using well-established scientific research methods.
> This analogy doesn't explain anything about the freudian concept of
> unconscious.
Frankly, I don't understand your confusion here. Psychologists have done and continue to do rigorous scientific research to test Freudian ideas about the unconscious. The research on homophobic men is one good example. Do you need some more?
Miles