> OK, I can tell her that. But does that observation
> point at an explanation for the higher European
> unemployment rate that is different from the
> "overpriced labor" one of mainstream economics? Or is
> a way of saying, yes, that's the explanation, but it
> doesn't matter because social democracy reduces the
> burden of necessary labor to a greater degree than
> American neoliberalism?
What do you have against the "Well maybe, but so?" response? Should be effective, and you don't have to engage in any epistemic posturing.
(PS: I do mean to get back to the note you sent a month ago. Sorry that I haven't done so already.)
-- Luke