Brazil's, at around .6, is among the worst in the world and stubbornly so.
But is China's worse than India? Don't know what the most recent figures are, but (1) WB estimates for 1999 has 18.5% of China under USD1 a day, compared to about 40% for India, (2) China Stat Bureau for 1999 has rural Gini of .34 and urban of .29, where NCAER for India 1997-98 has .40 for rural India and .42 for urban India. Has it turned around that much over the past five years or so? If so, it would be a great argument on the inequality front against 'globalisation'.
kj khoo