> Not at my fingertips but my guess is that it'd be the same or
> slightly higher than the GDP share. Over the last few years, US
> consumption has inched above 70% of GDP (after being in the mid-60s
> in the 1990s and the low 60s in the early post-WW2 decades). That's
> higher than most other countries (which have higher investment,
> government, and net export shares).
>
> Doug
>
********************** Your stats establish that the US share in world GDP has declined, though not steadily, in recent decades. On the other hand you seem to think that US consumption over the same period has inched upwards. I'm not saying we should rush to any conclusions based on patchy evidence, but isn't it at least worth considering that these two opposing trends, if they exist, suggest a pattern typical of empires in decline (the Roman? the British?)?
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