On Sun, 29 May 2005, Bill Bartlett wrote:
> The question is not (as Miles puts it:
>
> "If a woman can have an orgasm with any sexual partner, male, female
> or herself (remember that intercourse is definitely not necessary!),
> why on earth would she be compelled to form a pair bond with just one
> man?"
>
> The question is, if women were not interested in sex outside their fertile
> period, what consequences would that have for them creating a long-term pair
> bond with a human male, most of whom want sex all the time. The female orgasm
> is no help to men trying to keep women in line of course, but it does help
> women to keep men somewhat in line.
>
> Sorry to offend you by suggesting this is obvious. Obviously it isn't
> obvious. ;-)
I'm not following your argument at all. How does women having orgasms "keep men somewhat in line"? Couldn't women just do that by providing or denying sex? Again, I don't see what this has to do with female orgasms.
Miles