Isn't unemployment simply counted better in places like France and German than the U.S.? Wouldn't a more realistic accounting of unemployment and underemployment and misemployment in the U.S. reveal that a "flexible" labor force does not provide much more than the inflexible kind in Germany and France? And isn't Germany still overcoming the hangover of putting out of business most of the "inefficient" enterprises in the East?
Perhaps Doug or someone else can answer these questions for me. -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: <../attachments/20060401/11a58eb9/attachment.htm>