--- Jim Devine <jdevine03 at gmail.com> wrote:
> <andie_nachgeborenen at yahoo.com> wrote:
> >Sort of, but as it's usually understood Marx's
> notion of productive
> labor involves value producing labor that creates
> material goods. This
> seems doubly arbitrary -- why restrict productive
> labor to the
> production of material goods -- if it has to be
> value producing, why
> not services and intangible goods? And why does
> productive laboir have
> to be value producing? It's nor productive id your
> compnay loses
> money? It's not productive even if it is a material
> goof of the sort
> that might be poroduced in the private sector (i.e.,
> not a public
> good) but is produced by the govt or not for profit?
> And why the
> production of public gboods nor productive labor
> anyway? The whole
> distinction is a mess. <
>
> that's partly because the material production is
> something from Smith
> that Marx dropped. For Marx, "productive labor"
> produces surplus-value
> PERIOD. The big question is whether or not this
> includes labor that
> is _indirectly_ productive, e.g., makes profits for
> a business without
> actually being paid out of the business' own
> revenues.
>
> OOPS, I got into a scholastic debate about the
> meaning of
> (un)productive labor, something not worth arguing
> about.
>
> --
> Jim Devine
> "The price one pays for pursuing any profession or
> calling is an
> intimate knowledge of its ugly side." -- James
> Baldwin
>
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