[lbo-talk] ruling class

[Charles Brown]

In my opinion, your analysis is not sufficiently in terms of class
relations, the relative power of classes and the government/state. The
theory of an economic ruling class only has to apply to political or
government or state power with respect to _conflicts_ between the material
interests of the material classes. It does not have to claim that the
capitalists control every decision made by the state or government, because
most of those have nothing to do with capitalists' class or individual
material interests. In general, the capitalists have no interests involved
in , say, a divorce between two working class people or criminal misdemeanor
case, yet the courts , a state institution, adjudicate political power in
millions of such cases. There are lots of political or power decisions and
actions which go on, in which the capitalists as a class or as individuals
corporations have no material or structural legal interest. However, when it
comes to political or power decisions by a court, executive or legislature
that directly or indirectly impact specific capitalist or capitalist class
material interests, the capitalists have an overwhelmingly dominant
influence that is accurately described as a monopoly. The capitalists have a
monopoly on power that counts in class terms.

Charles

Obviously, the economic power of the capitalist class couldn't exist 
without the state. But how does this contradict my argument that: the 
capitalist class is a ruling class because it has a monopoly on this 
economic power, not because it has a monopoly on political power? Did 
you get the impression I was arguing that political government was 
unnecessary to capitalism?

Clearly political government is necessary, just as clearly the 
capitalist class doesn't need a monopoly on the political power of 
political government. Many of the most advanced capitalist nations 
have political governments which are democratically elected. Even, to 
some extent, the USA. State (political) power (police, military, etc) 
in these cases cannot in any meaningful way be said to be monopolised 
by the capitalist class. Any fool can see that political power is in 
the hands of people elected (for the most part) by the working class. 
The working class has overwhelming numerical superiority, it can 
elect anyone it pleases. Sometimes we even elect governments which 
are thoroughly displeasing to the ruling class.

On the other hand, just as clearly, economic power is monopolised by 
the capitalist class. Whatever government is elected.

Which of these points is "bogus" and why?

Certainly the straw man argument, that - "Economic power is 
impossible without state power." is bogus. But that's just a 
diversion.

Bill Bartlett
Bracknell Tas