--- Charles Brown <cbrown at michiganlegal.org> wrote:
>
> CB: I know that "homo sapiens sapiens" is used, but
> to me it is an invalid
> usage, because the second "sapiens" makes it a
> sub-species, which would be a
> race.
Well, is it emprically determined (through genetic comparisons) that the Neanderthals were in fact a separate species? (I'm not well-informed in biology -- the question is probably incredibly naive.)
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