<div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="border-left: 1px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); margin: 0pt 0pt 0pt 0.8ex; padding-left: 1ex;"> Therefore the rate of inflation of the rate of inflation in the market for primary commodities is the characteristic curve of the present world monetary-financial system. This rate of rate of inflation, as reflected in the concealed behavior of M3, is the curve which corresponds to the Weimar, Germany hyperinflationary curve of June-November 1923. Underneath it all, is Leibniz's catenary-cued principle of physical least action, the fundamental principle of the Leibniz infinitesimal calculus and Leibniz's original correct discovery of the natural-logarithmic function derived from the double-catenary characteristic of the least-action principle. The comprehension of such systems in general, is found in the work of Riemann on hypergeometries. ___________________________________ <a href="http://mailman.lbo-talk.org/mailman/listinfo/lbo-talk"> http://mailman.lbo-talk.org/mailman/listinfo/lbo-talk</a></blockquote><div> Doug, Why do you even look at this stuff?  Is it perhaps for the same reason I used to read Worker's Vanguard, for the pleasure in the lunacy.  O.K.  Let's assume this makes sense.  So LaRouche believes that there is a calculus of variations for inflation, or that he can find a parametric equation that is an economic invariable, and thus he can calculate some sort of "long wave" of the rate of inflation and that it can be calculated with the accuracy of the force of gravity acting uniformally on all parts of a chain.  All other things being equal of course, which they never are.  So why doesn't he give us the equation and then fill in the variables, for Bernoulli's sake! Should we stoop to critique this?  (I will waste time! And anyway I am sure Ravi could do a better job than is within my ability!)  In order for this to be correct you would have to assume that whatever "force" there is for the rate of the rate of inflation is always close to invariant at all times and that you know not only the top of the wave in the past but can calculate the top of the wave in the future.  We're also assuming that economic "time" (whatever that is in this case) is uniform and that "inflation" is an ideal perfectly flexible....  But why must the long wave of inflation look like something as geometrically simple as a catenary?  Why not something prettier like a hellcoid or better yet a pseudosphere, which is formed by rotating a tractrix around a y axis and looks like this <a href="http://www.geom.uiuc.edu/zoo/diffgeom/pseudosphere/">http://www.geom.uiuc.edu/zoo/diffgeom/pseudosphere/</a> Of course it is much easier to assume that economics is two dimensional......  Sorry I must have my fun.... </div> </div> -- Jerry Monaco's Philosophy, Politics, Culture Weblog is Shandean Postscripts to Politics, Philosophy, and Culture <a href="http://monacojerry.livejournal.com/">http://monacojerry.livejournal.com/ </a> His fiction, poetry, weblog is Hopeful Monsters: Fiction, Poetry, Memories <a href="http://www.livejournal.com/users/jerrymonaco/">http://www.livejournal.com/users/jerrymonaco/</a> Notes, Quotes, Images - From some of my reading and browsing <a href="http://www.livejournal.com/community/jerry_quotes/">http://www.livejournal.com/community/jerry_quotes/</a>