On Apr 24, 2007, at 11:31 AM, Jerry Monaco wrote:
> Why should wealth distribution (in any society) follow this
> thermodynamic model? Is it simply an "artifact" of how we have
> constructed society? Surely it is not an "intended" artifact, but
> simply a mathematical side effect. But why should the model work in
> the first place for any given society? Is this a stupid question, or
> an epistemological mistake on my part to even ask the question.
I'm too lazy and short of time to read the paper, but there's a pretty significant variation in the distribution of wealth (and does this really mean wealth, or is it a sloppy synonym for income?) across societies, and within individual societies over time. How do the laws of physics explain those?
Doug