[lbo-talk] Jewish "nation"? (Was Armenian genocide?)

Russell Grinker grinker at mweb.co.za
Thu Oct 18 11:27:47 PDT 2007


I prefer Abraham Leon's 'people-class' idea (see his *The Jewish question: A Marxist interpretation*). And I tend to go along with his argument that this people-class was already being wiped out (as a social formation) by the erosion of pre-capitalist social relations in the east in the late 19th Century as it had been at an earlier stage in Western Europe where Jews had long been assimilated. Dispersed across Eastern Europe and moving into the west, these 'luftmenschen' became a visible and easy scapegoat in an era of economic depression and social dislocation which was also eroding other archaic social formations. In other words, the shtetel was already on its way out before these communities bore the brunt of the Final Solution.

-----Original Message----- From: lbo-talk-bounces at lbo-talk.org [mailto:lbo-talk-bounces at lbo-talk.org] On Behalf Of Marvin Gandall Sent: 18 October 2007 07:19 PM To: LBO-Talk Subject: Re: [lbo-talk] Jewish "nation"? (Was Armenian genocide?)

Chris wrote:

I think if one redefines "Jew" as "Eastern European Yiddish-Speaking Jew," the Nazis were very successful. A few stragglers made it through, but the nation is dead... ============================= I think that's very true. The East European Jews lived in their own communities and had a distinctive Yiddish-speaking culture, qualifying them as a nation, albeit an oppressed one which didn't enjoy sovereignty over its own territory. That Yiddish-speaking nation was destroyed, replaced by a new Hebrew-speaking nation in the Mideast. Elsewhere, Judaism is simply a religion like Catholicism, it adherents dispersed among many nationalities. Swedish and Algerian Jews are still bound by the ancient religious rituals and symbols, but that is about all they have in common.



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