I haven't read this particular book of Reich's, although I think I understand the extract that was posted, having read some of his other works. I doubt whether this can really be an explanation of fascism all in itself. It might be a valid partial explanation insofar as it describes certain preconditions for the emergence of fascism: i.e. sexual repression. But this does not explain why x becomes a fascist and y doesn't, if both x and y are repressed. One would have to claim that ALL of those people who are sexually repressed become fascists and NONE of those who are not sexually repressed become fascists, which hardly seems plausible, especially if one is also trying to claim, as I think Reich probably did, that sexual repression is widely generalised in society. In such an explanation the terms 'fascism' and 'repression' would simply become synonyms. This would not fit very well with certain widely accepted ideas about fascism, that it is a modern phenomenon, that it is tied up with political populism and nation states, etc. This looks like one of those explanations that date back to the time when psychoanalysis was still young and believed that it alone could explain everything. Tahir -------------- next part -------------- All Email originating from UWC is covered by disclaimer http://www.uwc.ac.za/portal/public/portal_services/disclaimer.htm