andie nachgeborenen wrote:
>
> PLEASE Let us stick to the POINT, NOT the form of
> compensation in a hypothetical furure society, but
> whether the dostinction makes sense RIGHT NOW HERE IN
> CAPOITALISM, PLEASE?!
>
Redefine your question as a philological question, not a question about actuality. That is, the problem is interpretation of a number of texts in the works of Marx.
_If_ agreement can be reached, even tentatively, on the philological question, _then_ one could go on to raise the question of the validity (applicability) of the concept. Moving back and forth, confusedly, between these two separate questions can only lead deeper and deeper into chaos.
And just ignore any posts that refuse to accept that "value" has a technical meaning in this context. You can't teach vocabulary at the same time you are wrestling with an interpretive problem.
Carrol