--- Chris Doss <lookoverhere1 at yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> Depends on the country, doesn't it?
>
[WS:] Interesting question. The x-Soviet countries nominally did not have taxes on wages (only non-employment income above certain level was taxed) However, since most establishments were publicly owned, it can be argued that the tax was already deducted from pay without even showing it. That is, employees would receive what is refered to as disposable income (i.e. income after taxes) without making it transparent what the amount of total compensation would be, if taxes were collected the way they are in bourgeois democracies.
This is probably is the closest scenario that fits Bill's argument. However, under the latter, individuals can make decisions that affect their tax liability, which means that they pay those taxes out of their income - not their employers.
Wojtek
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