>all these sentences, as well as sentences
>uttered by the child, are fully consistent with the Chomskyan UG
>structure/grammar which remains invariant across languages and
>utterances.
But aren't there more languages in the world than we've even counted? This could cut both ways. On the one hand, how much certainty can be attached to this invariant across languages if it's only been observed in the few languages we've studied in depth? On the other, the very fact there are so many languages could be seen as an argument for innateness.
Seems to me there's a lot up in the air, which is part of what Kenneally is driving at no?