> What happened -- according to the official stats -- is that
> a candidate went from 6% to 50-something %, in one province, in the space
> of four years -- against different opponents, in a different economic and
> political setting, and after four years of incumbency.
One political shift in one region? Entirely possible. But identical political shifts in all regions, in a country marked by enormous linguistic and ethnic heterogeneity?
If the election were genuine, we'd see the kind of regional variation typical of, say, India.
-- DRR