> > Why does capitalism always produce anti-Semitism? Can't capitalism
> > do without anti-Semitism? If not, why not?
>
> I think Postone explains this best in the piece I linked to:
>
> As indicated above, on the logical level of the analysis of the
> commodity, the “double character” allows the commodity to appear as a
> purely material entity rather than as the objectification of mediated
> social relations. [Etc.]
My hat's off to the guy; he is to abstract nouns what Wellington was to infantry.
Still, it's an interesting and thought-provoking essay about a specific historical moment and specific historical phenomena. I fail to see how it demonstrates any "constitutive" quality to anti-Semitism for all capitalism everywhere, though.
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Michael Smith mjs at smithbowen.net http://stopmebeforeivoteagain.org http://fakesprogress.blogspot.com http://cars-suck.org